Posted: Sat Oct 28, 2006 3:07 pm Post subject: Probability question
I don't know anything about math, so this could be a really stupid question. But let's say you have the following situation: You have 1,000 in chips, villain has 250. You're all in twice, on a coinflip. What's villain's odds of beating you? How do you calculate that?
And what about if the first all-in is not a coinflip but, say, 60/40 in his favor?
Well, you've got him covered for both coinflips so his chances of winning are (0.5*0.5) = 0.25 and you have a 75% chance of success. If he's 60/40 his chances of winning both are (0.6*0.6)=0.36 and you have a 64% chance. If the first only is 60/40 his chances are (0.6*0.5)=0.3 and you have a 70% chance.
Posted: Wed Jan 03, 2007 2:21 am Post subject: Re: Probability question
Rublish wrote:
I don't know anything about math, so this could be a really stupid question. But let's say you have the following situation: You have 1,000 in chips, villain has 250. You're all in twice, on a coinflip. What's villain's odds of beating you? How do you calculate that?
And what about if the first all-in is not a coinflip but, say, 60/40 in his favor?
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